THE 'MAZZAROTH'

It's a word that comes from scripture, at least in the King James Version of the Bible. Many of our English versions have retained this word. Among these are the NKJV, the ESV, the RSV, the ASV and the WEB. Notably, in Young's Literal Version the text says; "Mazzaroth", and in the Hebrew Names Version the text reads; "Mazzarot".

The NIV has rendered the original Hebrew word as 'constellations' which leaves us to wonder as to which constellations are in view, and the NASB translates the word in the singular form as 'a constellation' which may be misleading. The word does have something to do with the constellations in our sky, those groupings of stars that stir the imaginations of so many people.

The closest word I know of that would equate to the Mazzaroth is Zodiac.

Oh, no. I said a bad word. Many people believe that the Zodiac is somehow evil. That belief may come from the way these particular star groupings are used in astrology. We need to understand that there is a major difference between astronomy and astrology, and we need to find out who the author of the Zodiac is.

He who created the stars also created the Zodiac. He didn't call it the Zodiac. He named it the Mazzaroth. God did that. God named this particular group of constellations, the Mazzaroth. He also gave names to the individual constellations that comprise the Mazzaroth. We find a few names of the star groups in scripture.

"Which maketh Arcturus, Orion, and Pleiades, and the chambers
of the south." (Job 9:9)

" Canst thou bind the sweet influences of Pleiades, or loose the bands
of Orion? Canst thou bring forth Mazzaroth in his season? or canst
thou guide Arcturus with his sons?" (Job 38:31-32)

"Seek him that maketh the seven stars and Orion, and turneth the
shadow of death into the morning, and maketh the day dark with night:
that calleth for the waters of the sea, and poureth them out upon the
face of the earth: Yahweh is his name:" (Amos 5:8)

"The heavens declare the glory of God; and the firmament sheweth
his handywork. Day unto day uttereth speech, and night unto night
sheweth knowledge. There is no speech nor language, where their
voice is not heard" (Psalm 19:1-3)

For more than 6,000 years God has declared himself to mankind via the heavens. The night skies have shown knowledge to man in God's truly universal language. That is why Romans 1:18-20 is able to state:

"For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all
ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth
in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God
is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the
invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly
seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his
eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"

The use of the constellations in the Zodiac in the workings of astrology are the design of Satan. We need to remember that Satan never creates anything. All Satan can do is pervert what God has created, and such is the nature of astrology. His ministers have given different names to the constellations and then used the whole system to prognosticate personal fortunes. If you or someone you know is participating in this business, you (or they) need to repent and get out of it.

The definitive work on what the original names and symbols presented in the Zodiac all mean was done by E.W. Bullinger over a century ago. You can buy the book in hardback or softback, or you can read it for free online at this link.

There are twelve constellations that lie in the plane of the ecliptic, the path that the sun makes through the sky. Each one of the twelve has three associated constellations called Decans. Each constellation portrays a character in the story God designed them to tell to us. Perhaps in a future writing, we will examine the story in depth and the individual players. For now, it is for me to discuss the 'So What' question of the Mazzaroth; so here it is;

So What?

We who are Christians believe that we are saved by God's grace when we place our full trust for salvation in the finished work of Christ on the cross of Calvary. This teaching is the very essence of Christianity, and is stated in 1st Corinthians 15:1-5. We are also told that Abraham believed God, and God's righteousness was imputed to him in return. We find this teaching in James 2:23 as well as other places. It is a direct reference to the events of Genesis 15:1-6.

Abraham/Abram was distraught that in his old age he still had no son to be his heir. God took him outside to look at the stars as we read:

"And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven,
and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him,
So shall thy seed be. And he believed in Yahweh; and he counted it to
him for righteousness." (Genesis 15:5-6)

As Christians, we present these verses to others and explain to them that this is where Abraham got saved. We explain that when Abraham believed God, God saved him, and we never stop to ask ourselves what it was that Abraham believed that resulted in his salvation. Verse six records one short statement made by God after Abraham had looked up at the stars: "So shall thy seed be." Make note of the singularity of the word seed. That will be important later.

We are familiar with the passages which declare that Abraham is promised that his posterity will be as numerous as the sands of the sea. In the same verse, Genesis 22:17, we are also told that his seed will be "as the stars of the heaven".

"That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply
thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon
the sea shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies;"

The population of Earth is not as numerous as either the stars of the heavens or as the sands of the sea, not even if we include all the many generations since Adam. Abraham's descendants are very numerous, but not that numerous, even if you include all of his spiritual offspring. Will his posterity ever be that numerous? Well, it's not really a question we can answer, but we may possibly be able to answer some different questions:

#1 Is Genesis 15:5-6 saying that Abraham's posterity would
be as numerous as the stars of the heavens?

#2 Was Abraham saved by believing a promise from God
that he would have a lot of posterity?

#3 Isn't salvation dependent upon our trusting the finished
work of Christ at the cross?

#4 Was Abraham saved by believing something else?

Genesis 15:5-6 is commonly interpreted as saying that Abraham believed God's promise of multiplied posterity, and because of that trust, Abraham was saved. This is not correct. What? That's right, Abraham was saved because he believed the gospel; just like you can be saved today; just like I am saved today. Galatians 3:8 tells us that the gospel was preached to Abraham.

"And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen
through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham,
saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed."

If the gospel was preached to Abraham, then he had the opportunity to believe it, and if he believed it, then his trust/faith was counted unto him for righteousness. So, it wasn't his belief in God's promise of posterity that was counted to him for righteousness. So, why do we find that God's righteousness was counted to Abraham in the same verses that tell us about God showing the stars of the heavens to him? Because that's when and where God preached the gospel to Abraham, and He did it using the stars to tell the story.

Huh?

Let's look at the verses of Genesis 15 again.

"And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven,
and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him,
So shall thy seed be. And he believed in Yahweh; and he counted it to
him for righteousness." (Genesis 15:5-6)

Two distinct words in verse five are translated from the same Hebrew word. What unfortunate translation work of the two words in bold type. Both tell and number come from the Hebrew word (Strong's H5608); caphar. Tell is a better rendering, but number gives us the idea that God wanted Abraham to count the stars. If Abraham's count of the stars was to be the basis for God giving him posterity, then I think Abraham would have gone childless. Have you ever tried to count the stars?

The New King James Version is worse than the KJV which I'm showing here. It actually says;

"Look now toward heaven, and count the stars if you are able to number them."

The NASB and NIV say just about the same thing with slight differences in phrasing, and the same is true for all of the other versions shown on the Blue Letter Bible site.

The translation of the word caphar is the culprit here. Here is how this same word is translated elsewhere in the KJV. [each word is shown with the number of times it is translated that way]

scribe 50, tell 40, declare 24, number 23, count 6,
shew forth 5, writer 4, speak 2, accounted 1, commune 1,
told out 1, reckon 1, shewing 1, talk 1

Caphar is only translated as count 6 times out of the total 160 times it occurs. That means something, but we can also look at how it is translated the most. Most of the time this word is translated as scribe or tell. [Compare Genesis 24:66 and Psalm 71:15] The definition of caphar is:

to count, to recount, to relate

I'm particularly drawn to the 24 times that this word is translated as declare. We've already looked at one of the passages where caphar is so translated. Let's look at it again.

"The heavens declare the glory of God; and the firmament sheweth
his handywork. Day unto day uttereth speech, and night unto night
sheweth knowledge. There is no speech nor language, where their
voice is not heard" (Psalm 19:1-3)

Take a minute and read the full text of Psalm 19.

How can God say what He says in Romans 1:18-20:

"For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all
ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth
in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God
is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the
invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly
seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his
eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"

How can men be without excuse just because they have seen God's creation? When and how has God "shewed it unto them"? For more than 6,000 years, God's witness in his created Mazzaroth has told the story of His plan for the redemption of mankind. It's right there in the stars that you can see every night. It's right there in the same stars that Abraham saw. It's right there in the stars that God used to tell the story to Abraham.

It's right there in the stars that declare God's handiwork. What is God's handiwork? The redemption of mankind. The Mazzaroth tells the story of the redemption of my BY A REDEEMER born of a virgin (Virgo). It tells the story all the way to the end where the Lion (Leo) of the tribe of Judah reigns supreme. It tells the story of the coming seed of the woman. How many is that?

Can we make a paraphrase of Genesis 15:5-6?

"And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven,
and profess to me what the stars say, if thou be willing to profess their
story: and he said unto him, So shall thy seed be. And he believed in
Yahweh; and he counted it to him for righteousness." (Genesis 15:5-6)

It doesn't say; "This is how many offspring you will have."

It says; "So shall thy seed be." How many seed?

"Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ." (Galatians 3:16)

God gave the salvation message in the stars so that no one would have any excuse.

Now, just exactly what was Abraham's complaint to God in Genesis 15:2-3?

"And Abram said, Lord GOD, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go
childless, and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus?
And Abram said, Behold, to me thou hast given no seed: and, lo,

one born in my house is mine heir."

And what was God's response in verse four?

"And, behold, the word of the LORD [came] unto him, saying, This
shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own
bowels shall be thine heir."

AND THEN GOD TOOK HIM OUT TO LOOK AT THE MAZZAROTH.

And when Abraham had recounted the witness of the stars, God said; "So shall thy seed be."

Abraham, this promised seed of the woman shall be your heir. How 'bout that Abraham?

This is what was happening in Genesis 15:1-6.


Check out the link

NOTHING TO FEAR?

"For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men..." (Mark 7:8a)

It has been a few years since the 'No Fear' logo was all the rage. Today, there is not much more than a remnant of it, but I was able to find several good pictures on the internet.



The idea of 'No Fear' is a bold and strong statement from the secular side of our world. I suspect it is intended to present an image of security and self-confidence. It's as though they're saying that "We are the biggest, toughest kids on the block, able to beat up any other kid on the block."

I suspect that for many, this is probably true; they are the biggest kids on the block, so perhaps they are safe in making that statement? As long as they limit their social involvement to their own 'block', they probably have no need to fear. Maybe they better make sure they have no need to leave their own block?

But, as big as their block is, perhaps even as big as the entire planet, there is a boundary to it, and outside that boundary they may not be so bold. However, I believe that the entire 'No Fear' idea presented by so many is nothing short of blatant defiance of God. Take a look for yourself. Who wears a hat with that logo on it?

Now, how 'bout us Christians? What are we saying along this line?

How long has it been since you last hear a preacher say that the word 'fear' in the Bible, when used in conjunction with our attitude toward God, doesn't really mean Fear? Didn't your preacher tell you that when you read the words 'fear of God' it actually means; awe or respect or reverence? Didn't he tell you that we're not supposed to be afraid of our God? Maybe I'm the only one who has had preachers tell me that.

No. I don't think so. I think that this teaching is quite universal throughout the worldwide body of Christ. We have moved away from the days of such preaching as that done by Jonathan Edwards. We have come to know God as a powerful being whom we need to reverence and hold in awe, but certainly not be afraid of. Then we read what Paul wrote to the Romans:

"What then? are we better than they? As it is written, There is none
righteous, no, not one: No, in no wise: for we have before proved both
Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; There is none that
understands, there is none that seeks after God. They are all gone out
of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that
does good, no, not one. Their throat is an open sepulcher; with their
tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips:
Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: Their feet are swift to
shed blood: Destruction and misery are in their ways: And the way of
peace have they not known: There is no fear of God before their eyes."
(Romans 3:9-18)

Quickly now; let's remember that 'fear' doesn't really mean 'fear' in this verse. It just means awe and reverence for God?

Really?

Actually, the Greek word translated as 'fear' in verse 18 is 'phobos'. It is the root word for a word we should recognize in our own language; phobia. Does phobia mean awe or reverence?

In the New Testament, the word fear appears 84 times. In all but four cases it is translated from the Greek words phobos/phobeo. What about the other four times? Let's look at them. 2nd Timothy 1:7 is often quoted in support of not being afraid.

"For God hath not given us the spirit of fear; but of power,
and of love, and of a sound mind." (2nd Timothy 1:7)

In this passage, the Greek word isn't phobos, and if you are reading from the NIV or from the NASB, you will see what is probably a better translation of the Greek word here: timidity. Paul was encouraging Timothy to bear witness and not be timid about it.

"By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved
with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he
condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is
by faith." (Hebrews 11:7)

In this passage, Noah built the ark in reverence toward God. The Greek word is not phobos.

"Wherefore we receiving a kingdom which cannot be moved, let us have
grace, whereby we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly
fear: For our God is a consuming fire." (Hebrews 12:27-28)

Again, the Greek word is not phobos, and the NIV and NASB give a better rendering as awe.

One other verse should be cited before declaring that all the other occurrences of 'fear' come from the Greek word phobos. This example is a reverse version of what we have looked at so far. In this verse, the only one of its kind, the Greek word is phobos, but it ISN'T translated as
fear. I wonder why?

"Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even
as himself; and the wife see that she reverence her husband."
(Ephesians 5:33)

In this passage, the Greek word phobos is actually translated as reverence. It is the only place where such is the case. Wherever the word reverence occurs in the New Testament, except for Ephesians 5:33, it is translated from the Greek word enopion.

So, now we've covered all of the exceptions. Every other New Testament verse where we find the word fear, the Greek word from which it is translated is phobos/phobeo. Let's look at just a few of them.

"But if we shall say, Of men; we fear the people; for
all hold John as a prophet." (Matthew 21:26)

Did the chief priests and scribes hold the people in awe or reverence in this case? No. They feared (phobeo) what the people would do if they didn't give the right answer, so they decided not to answer at all.

"And for fear of him the keepers did shake,
and became as dead men." (Matthew 28:4)

Did the guards at the tomb fall down out of awe or reverence? No. They fell down out of fear (phobos) of the angel.

"Then the whole multitude of the country of the Gadarenes round
about besought him to depart from them; for they were taken with
great fear: and he went up into the ship, and returned back again."
(Luke 8:17)

Were the Gadarenes taken with awe and reverence of our Lord? No. What they saw scared them. They left the area.

These are just some of the many examples that demonstrate that the English word fear is the correct translation from the Greek words phobos and phobeo, and they also demonstrate that fear means 'to be afraid', not 'to be in awe' or 'to reverence.'

But, some will reply and quote such verses as the following:

"That he would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of
our enemies might serve him without fear, In holiness and righteousness
before him, all the days of our life." (Luke 1:74-75)

Fair enough. Here's my question: Are we to serve him without fear of him, or are we to serve him without fear of what other might say or do? Which answer would not contradict the following verses?

"And his mercy is on them that fear him
from generation to generation." (Luke 1:50)

"Then had the churches rest throughout all Judaea and Galilee and
Samaria, and were edified; and walking in the fear of the Lord, and
in the comfort of the Holy Ghost, were multiplied." (Acts 9:31)

"Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith.
Be not highminded, but fear: For if God spared not the natural branches,
take heed lest he also spare not thee." (Romans 11:20-21)

"Having therefore these promises, dearly beloved, let us cleanse
ourselves from all filthiness of the flesh and spirit, perfecting
holiness in the fear of God." (2nd Corinthians 7:1)

"Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my
presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your
own salvation with fear and trembling." (Philippians 2:12)

"And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the
soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and
body in hell." (Matthew 10:28)

Let us not be guilty of what Paul condemns in Romans 3:18.

THE HARVESTS OF THE LORD

The following is a post from my friend, Max Wells, on April 13th, 2010.
It is posted here in its entirety, unaltered in any way.

**
Is the following a certainty? Though it is presented as a certainty, this just simplifies the flow of the presentation. It is, in fact, merely the thoughts this meager servant has compiled in a study of the subject. Please read the following, and share your thoughts, concerns, or contemplations with me in return. I encourage your interaction. However, my e-mail time is somewhat limited, so please be patient in awaiting a return response.

May the Lord bless our continued understanding as we grow in Him,
Max Wells - inhisfootsteps@msn.com

**

HARVESTS OF THE LORD

We know the various harvests are typological for spiritual occurrences where God deals with different groups of people. There are three major types of harvests mentioned in the Word: barley, wheat and grapes. For both the barley and wheat harvests there are two segments: firstfruits and ingathering. For the grape, there is but one - a totality type of harvest. The harvests are linked closely to the festivals of Unleavened Bread, Feast of Weeks, Feast of Trumpets, and Day of Atonement (just prior to Feast of Tabernacles).

The firstfruits of the barley is offered on the morrow after the Sabbath during the week of Unleavened Bread Leviticus 23:11. Deuteronomy 16:9 says: "seven weeks shalt thou number unto thee: begin to number the seven weeks from such time as thou BEGINNEST to put the sickle to the corn." We know this to be corns of barley, and Leviticus 23:10 clarifies that this is the firstfruits of the barley harvest. Then in Ruth 1:22 we see that the time when Ruth would be going out into the fields in chapter two was during the BEGINNING of the "barley harvest" of ingathering. It is commonly understood that those of the Jewish faith read the book of Ruth during Feast of Weeks (Shavuot, Harvest Feast, or Pentecost) because that is when this story was occurring. Being 50 days after the waving of the firstfruits of the barley harvest during Feast of Unleavened Bread, it was time for the ingathering of the barley harvest. As Pastor Riley points out in his article called So Simple, Pentecost is "the end of the barley harvest and the beginning of the wheat harvest." This is very important to understand: The ingathering of the barley harvest is SIMULTANEOUS WITH the firstfruits of the wheat harvest - at Feast of Weeks, Pentecost or Shavuot. "And thou shalt observe the feast of weeks, of the firstfruits of wheat harvest, and the feast of ingathering at the year's end." - Exodus 34:22 "Year's end" in this verse would be at the transition into the new secular year at Feast of Trumpets during the fall festivals, when the ingathering balance of the wheat crop is harvested. There is only one other notable Biblical harvest, that of the grape. I do not find a time table for this harvest in the Word, but other sources indicate that the totality (being harvested all at one time) of the grape harvest occurs late in the year near the fall festivals, and is usually completed BY Feast of Tabernacles. Since Day of Atonement is only five days prior to Feast of Tabernacles, and is known as being a day of judgment, we will use this as our probable time frame rather than Feast of Tabernacles for the grape harvest.

The preceding paragraph provides your references. The concept, however is simple:

Firstfruits of barley harvest = Feast of Unleavened Bread
Ingathering of barley harvest = Feast of Weeks (Shavuot, Harvest Feast, or Pentecost)
Firstfruits of wheat harvest = Feast of Weeks (Shavuot, Harvest Feast, or Pentecost)
Ingathering of wheat harvest = Feast of Trumpets
Totality of grape harvest = Day of Atonement (just prior to Feast of Tabernacles)

Yeshua was a "firstfruits" per I Corinthians 15:20 which says: But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept. Using converse reasoning, might not this imply there will also one day be a firstfruits of them that have not slept? Might the firstfruits of the dead represent the first of the two grain harvests - that of barley? Might not the second grain harvest of wheat then be the typology for the firstfruits of those that have not slept? Using this as a theory, let's see if the pieces fall into place.

Yeshua has been designated "an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec" - Hebrews 6:20. It is the High Priest that waves the firstfruit offerings before God. Is Yeshua exempt from that? The Word has an answer: "For EVERY high priest is ordained to offer gifts and sacrifices: wherefore it is of NECESSITY that this man have somewhat also to offer." - Romans 8:3.

Yeshua was the firstfruits of those who SLEPT (barley). As High Priest, however, He would not be able to be His own offering. He needed some firstfruits from His earthly barley crop to wave before God. Maybe the Word helps us with this one too: When Yeshua was crucified, we read: "And behold, the veil was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent; And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints WHICH SLEPT arose, and came out of the graves after His resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many." Matthew 27:51-53. What happened to them then? The Word does not say. Is it possible that these saints who SLEPT, and were raised from their graves, were taken on into heaven with Yeshua for Him to wave as the High Priest's firstfruits barley offering during Feast of Unleavened Bread.?

The next thing on our harvest schedule would be the ingathering of the barley harvest, and the firstfruits of the wheat harvest. These two events happen simultaneously at the Feast of Weeks time frame. Notice in Leviticus 23:17 that there are TWO loaves which are baked with leaven. They are firstfruits unto the Lord. It is time for the firstfruits of the wheat harvest to be offered. Leaven is often typological for sin. (As it would relate to the human harvests, being baked with leaven might mean that the ones who compose this offering will have been prepared for it in a sin laden world, and may still be subject to slight impurities until they are harvested.) The offering of TWO loaves here is noteworthy also. There are two grain crops, ripening together, and Leviticus does not specify which grains should be used in these two loaves. Since the verse indicates that both loaves are to be "firstfruits" unto the Lord, one might conclude that both of these loaves would be from the firstfruits of the wheat. However, per the Hebrew Strongs #1061 definitions, this word "firstfruits" can also mean "hasty (acting in haste) fruit". It is time for the wheat firstfruits, but also time for the barley ingathering. Ruth 1:22 specifies that it is the BEGINNING of the barley harvest (of ingathering). What was God's intent here? Could it have been that one loaf be of first ripened wheat, and the other of the first of the ingathering barley harvest, hastily gathered and prepared before the harvesters started their work in earnest? Why two loaves, if only one harvest was being represented before God? Is it likely that He could have intended one from each of the two ripening grains? Traditions of men aside, it looks entirely plausible to me. Is there a Biblical passage that could address an ingathering barley harvest loaf here - a loaf to present yet another group (still future) from the barley crop planted by Yeshua which have slept? Could we perhaps even find something in the Word to represent each of these two loaves?

In Revelation we find two groups of 144,000. The first one is in the first eight verses of chapter 7, which is composed of 12,000 from each of the 12 tribes of Jacob. The second is found in the first five verses of chapter 14, which is a group which was "redeemed from the EARTH" (verse 3) and "redeemed from among MEN" (verse 4). The word "redeemed" is the Greek word "agorazo". Strongs #59 tells us it means "setting a slave free through purchase"; "acquiring". What is the penalty for being a slave to sin? "For the wages of sin is DEATH, but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord" - Romans 6:23. We know that this eternal life is our spiritual gift, but we are prepared to face physical death unless it is supernaturally preempted. Could these be ones who have also been spared (redeemed from) MAN'S curse of physical DEATH, and spared (redeemed from) burial in the heart of the EARTH after DEATH? They were redeemed (set free through purchase) from MAN (verse 3) and EARTH (verse 4). They are designated as "FIRSTFRUITS unto God and to the Lamb" (verse 4). Maybe they are those who were caught up as firstfruits of the wheat harvest! If this is only those who have been marked as those first RIPENED among the wheat (i.e.first[ripened]fruits), it is because they have learned to submit entirely to the Holy Spirit, overcoming their own self wills and the carnality of the world around them. "These are they which FOLLOW the Lamb whithersoever he goeth." - Revelation 14:4. The Greek word for "follow" in this verse is "akoloutheo". The most profound Strongs #190 definition is "to be a disciple of a leader's teaching". This would be the ones who have proven their obedience to the teaching and leadership of the Holy Spirit. There may be another inference as well. If our early supposition is correct, those in the firstfruits barley harvest "FOLLOWED" Yeshua when he went to the heavenlies so He could wave them before the Father as the firstfruits of His barley harvest during Feast of Unleavened Bread. Then Yeshua returned to the earth for 40 days, returning to heaven just 10 days prior to Feast of Weeks. Is it possible that the firstfruits of the wheat harvest will be given a chance to "FOLLOW" him on the anniversary of His previous departure in order to be waved by Him a few days later before the Father's throne as the firstfruits of His wheat harvest in the season of Feast of Weeks?

The 144,000 in chapter 7 are not called "firstfruits" as are those in chapter 14. Those of chapter 7 are not said to be "redeemed", as are those in chapter 14. There are two loaves waved at Pentecost. There are two groups of 144,000 here. There are two types of harvesting occurring at Pentecost - barley and wheat. If barley indicates a resurrection harvest of those who sleep, might not the wheat represent the harvest of those who are spared a physical death through the redemptive power of Yeshua? If the 144,000 of chapter 14 represents the latter, and those in chapter 7 represents the former, what group might fit the criteria for this first group from the tribes of Jacob who have slept?

Presuming that Ezekiel has chronological merit, everyone waits with bated breath the coming of the Gog and Magog battle in chapters 38 and 39. However, there is something in chapter 37 which I do not believe has yet been fulfilled to pave the way for the two chapters that follow it. The dry bones must be resurrected. Some say this has been done because people who have left Israel are returning, and some are finding Yeshua who had never known Him. This is a figurative fulfillment, a shadow of the literal, but I believe this chapter must be LITERALLY fulfilled as well. The raising of the dead of the House of Israel would provide the barley loaf for Pentecost, as we see being framed in Revelation 7. This would be the INGATHERING barley harvest, and would be simultaneous with the FIRSTFRUITS wheat harvest, a loaf from each harvest being caught up together for our High Priest Yeshua to wave together before God the Father. Ezekiel 37 says the Lord will breathe upon those who are raised from their graves, and they will be given the Holy Spirit, and know that He is Lord. (They already knew the Father was Lord - this is referring to Yeshua my friends). Those who are selected to comprise the ingathering barley loaf would be gathered and taken to heaven to be waved with the firstfruits wheat loaf before the Father's throne by our High Priest, Yeshua.

The next thing on the harvest schedule would be the ingathering wheat harvest. Is this Biblically revealed? Revelation 14:1-5 is a picture of the firstfruits of the wheat harvest who have have been caught up and are being waved before God's throne (where they appear in verse 5). The context of verses 6-13 is an overview of the tribulation which occurs after their departure. Then the text of verses 14-16 speaks of a figure like the Son of Man holding a sickle, and being told to thrust it in and harvest the earth, for it is now ripe. This is when Yeshua comes for the rest of His wheat, the wheat which remained here after the firstfruits wheat had departed. It is now totally ripened through the persecutions and hardships of the tribulation, and the time for the ingathering is at hand. His sickle harvests the ingathering wheat, and catches them up to heaven, where they will stand before the Bema throne. I Corinthians 3:11-15 tells of being tried by FIRE at what we might presume to be this Bema. Leviticus 23:24 says: "... In the seventh month, in the first day of the month, shall ye have a sabbath, a memorial of blowing of trumpets, an holy convocation. Ye shall do no servile work therein: but ye shall offer an offering MADE BY FIRE unto the Lord." This harvest is symbolized by Feast of Trumpets in the fall.

Notation: Chapter 14 appears to have been taken out of chronological context in order to display a broad spectrum of time which overlays the actual events of the surrounding chapters. The actual timing for the INGATHERING wheat harvest might just be in Revelation 16:15. The departure times for the body of Christ are often designated by the phrase "I come as a thief", and there it is. Furthermore, look at the surrounding text and see if you can figure out why on earth this phrase would just be inserted out of the clear blue sky as it was, unless it was meant to stand out as an intervening event during the ongoing drama at hand. Verse 14 speaks of the world gathering together for the battle of Armageddon, and verse 16 continues the same thought, as though the intervening text had not occurred at all. Simply amazing! Then in verse 17, we hear a great voice out of the temple of heaven, from the throne, saying, "IT IS DONE". What is done? I suspect, the Bema throne has just concluded.

If the departure of the ingathering wheat was foreshadowed by Feast of Trumpets, looking down the road a mere 10 days later is Day of Atonement. The grapes are usually totally harvested by that point in time. There is a reference to this as well. Going back to our overview in chapter 14, we paused for commentary after verse 16. Looking now at verses 17-20, we see yet one more sickle, this time being held by an angel. He is told to thrust in his sickle to gather the grapes, as they are fully ripe. This angel reaps the totality of the grape harvest with the sweep of his sickle. These grapes, however, are not taken to heaven. They are thrown into a winepress, and blood came out of the winepress unto the horses' bridles for 1600 furlongs. Who were these grapes? I presume they are those who have hated Israel, and have come against her in the battle of Armageddon. They will be tried at this time, and the retribution for their deeds will follow - the winepress will resolve the conflict! The Day of Atonement judgment has occurred, and the consequences have been administered.

Looking at the total overview of the Festivals, and what they represent, we should step back to include the Passover events which preceded the waving of the barley firstfruits. We remember that Yeshua fulfilled the Feast of Passover, by being crucified as our Passover Lamb on Passover day (Wednesday that year). His body (being our Unleavened Bread) was laid to rest in the sepulchre just hours to moments before sundown, which would begin the high holy day of Feast of Unleavened Bread. There His body would remain for three days AND three nights (Matthew 12:40), rising from the grave 72 hours later at sundown on the Sabbath day of rest. The empty tomb was found before dawn the next morning, which was Feast of Firstfruits (the morrow after the Sabbath during the week of Unleavened Bread). He was seen by Mary, and she was told not to touch Him because He had not yet ascended to His Father (John 20:17). Soon thereafter He would tell Thomas to touch Him (John 20:27), indicating that He had briefly ascended to His Father to fulfill His role as High priest in waving the barley firstfruits before Him. Soon thereafter, HOLY SPIRIT WAS GIVEN TO THE BODY OF CHRIST TO INDWELL THEM THAT THEY MIGHT OVERCOME TO PROPERLY ALIGN WITH THE IMAGE OF YESHUA. This occurred at Feast of Weeks, a period of transition that joins the segments of the spring festivals (former fulfillments) to the fall festivals (latter fulfillments). The Holy Spirit was dispensed in the very early church, the former rain (typology of Joel 2:23) event which correlated to the former fulfillment of the spring festivities.

As time goes by and the church age ensues, we draw near to the DEPARTURE OF THOSE firstfruits wheat WHO HAVE OVERCOME TO PROPERLY ALIGN WITH THE IMAGE OF YESHUA. This latter rain (typology of Joel 2:23) Feast of Weeks event launches the fulfillment of the remaining latter fall festival end of the spectrum. The next fall festival would be Feast of Trumpets, when the the ingathering wheat harvest will occur. Ten days later is Day of Atonement and the grape harvest. Five days later is the Feast of Tabernacles, when Yeshua can relax from His duties, and dwell in peace with His people. It will begin His day of rest (the 1000 year Millennial Kingdom).

As it relates to the harvest festivals, we have seen how the barley, wheat, and grape harvests are in various stages (past to future) of completion (firstfruits, ingathering, and totality).

Coming back to our current time frame, we have seen the fulfillment of the spring festivals - Passover, Unleavened Bread, Firstfruits (firstfruits of the barley harvest), as well as the giving of the Holy Spirit (the former rain fulfillment of Feast of Weeks). It is now time for the departure of the Bride, (the latter rain fulfillment of Feast of Weeks), and the fall festivals fulfillment events which will follow.

In the meantime maybe it is time for us to pause for a moment to absorb all that has just been shown. Selah!

Keeping the Faith, Max Wells

ONCE SAVED - ALWAYS SAVED

For 1063 by grace 5485 are ye 2075 saved 4982 through 1223 faith 4102; and 2532 that 5124 not 3756 of 1537 yourselves 5216: [it is] the gift 1435 of God 2316: (Ephesians 2:8)

So, you think that you're saved?
Yes.

Okay. What was it that got you saved?
An act of God's grace (Ephesians 2:8).

Good answer. Why did God, in his grace, save you?
Because you put your faith in Christ (Ephesians 2:8).

Another good answer, but that was yesterday; what about today?
Once saved, always saved.

Really? I wonder if that's what the Israelites thought after God
saved them out of bondage in Egypt?

I will ¹⁰¹⁴ therefore ¹¹⁶¹ put ^{5279 0} you ⁵²⁰⁹ in remembrance ⁵²⁷⁹ , though ye ⁵²⁰⁹ once ⁵³⁰ knew ¹⁴⁹² this ⁵¹²⁴, how that ³⁷⁵⁴ the Lord ²⁹⁶², having saved ⁴⁹⁸² the people ²⁹⁹² out of ¹⁵³⁷ the land ¹⁰⁹³ of Egypt ¹²⁵, afterward ¹²⁰⁸ destroyed ⁶²² them that believed ⁴¹⁰⁰ not ³³⁶¹. (Jude v5)

It's the same word in both verses; #4982. The Israelites that came out of Egypt with Moses were "destroyed ⁶²² " by God before they could enter the land of promise. How is it that God saved them in the first place?

They trusted God, and put the blood of the lamb on the lintels and door posts of their houses.

Good answer. They trusted God?

Yes.

How many of them trusted God?

All of them.

They all trusted God?

Yes.

Then why did God destroy them before they could obtain his promise? Jude verse five says that they were destroyed ("them that believed ⁴¹⁰⁰ not 3361") because they didn't trust God.

Well, they all trusted God at first, but then they stopped trusting him.

So, at first they were saved, but later they weren't saved?

Yes. They were saved from Egypt when they trusted God, but then when they got to the promised land, they didn't trust God to deliver them from the giants in the land, so God destroyed them.

Okay. So, they quit trusting?

Yes.

How many of them stopped trusting God?

Everybody except Joshua and Caleb, and all the young people.

So, can that happen today? Can people who are "once saved" quit trusting God and lose their salvation?

WHAT ARE THE OTHER SIX HEADS?

"And I stood upon the sand of the sea, and saw a beast rise up
out of the sea, having seven heads and ten horns, and upon his
horns ten crowns, and upon his heads the name of blasphemy.
And the beast which I saw was like unto a leopard, and his feet
were as the feet of a bear, and his mouth as the mouth of a lion:
and the dragon gave him his power, and his seat, and great
authority. And I saw one of his heads as it were wounded to
death; and his deadly wound was healed: and all the world
wondered after the beast." (Revelation 13:1-3)

Why do people say that this one head that is wounded is 'the antichrist'?
If this one head is THE antichrist, what are the other six heads?
Revelation 13:11-12 says;

"And I beheld another beast coming up out of the earth;
and he had two horns like a lamb, and he spake as a dragon.
And he exerciseth all the power of the first beast before him,
and causeth the earth and them which dwell therein to
worship the first beast, whose deadly wound was healed."

This second beast causes everyone to worship the first 'beast'. It' doesn't say that this second beast causes everyone to worship the one head that was wounded.

Many people are expecting the scenario that happened in the famous novels. I think some of them think that the name of the antichrist will be Nicolai.

DETERMINING THE PROPER DAY TO START THE NEW MONTH

The following was written by my friend, Max Wells, on April 4th, 2010.
It is posted here in its entirety, unaltered in any way.

DETERMINING THE PROPER DAY TO START THE NEW MONTH

David said to Jonathan in I Samuel 20:5: "Behold, to morrow is the new moon ...". What was David looking at when he said "BEHOLD". Whatever he saw gave him the information that the new moon would be the following day. The moon is hidden from our view for roughly 2-1/2 days (dawn to dusk on day one, all of day two, and up to dusk on day three would be just that time frame). When David said "behold", he was observing something. About the only thing he could have seen that would confirm the "new moon" being the next day would have been the waning crescent moon, visible about dawn. (Actually, there are Talmudic indicators that the observation for the moon was centered around observing the WANING crescent so they could determine when the new moon conjunction would be.)

Please look through the data below to confirm the 2-1/2 day concept.

Per the website at:
http://www.capeweather.com/moon-phase.html

we find the following chart of moon phases. We see that the day prior to conjunction (this would be dawn that day) the waning crescent is barely visible. The day following conjunction (this would be about dusk that day, bordering the second day after conjunction) the waxing moon sliver comes ever so slightly into view.

`````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````

«« April 2010 »»
Sun	Mon	Tue	Wed	Thu	Fri	Sat
				1	2	3
4	5	6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15	16	17
18	19	20	21	22	23	24
25	26	27	28	29	30
Moon calculations are based on your time zone. Check your computer time to ensure accuracy.

`````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````

Then according to the following website:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_phase

the waning moon can be seen just prior to dawn or in the early morning. The waxing moon crescent is seen around dusk.

`````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````

Phase	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere	Visibility

Waning crescent moon

Left 1-49% visible

Right 1-49% visible

pre-dawn and morning

Waxing crescent moon .

Right 1-49% visible

Left 1-49% visible

afternoon and post-dusk

`````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````````

Our I Samuel 20 text indicates that there was some special dining arrangements - presumably a celebration to honor the new month at King Saul's table on the day of new moon, and David was expected to be there. We find this in verse 5, and again in verse 18. Per verse 5, the following day (which would start that same day at sundown) would be new moon. King Saul noted David's absence at the feast, but excused it, thinking something had defiled him and rendered him unclean. Then verse 27 specifies the second meal that David did not attend, and says it was the SECOND DAY of the month. The text clearly shows that this was the following day.

Let's analyze this for a moment. David BEHOLDS the waning crescent, designating the LAST day of the month they were in. Thus he observes that the new moon (hidden conjunction state of the moon) will be the following day (which would begin that same evening). That evening began DAY ONE of the new month (even prior to the actual timing of the conjunction), and Saul was celebrating the arrival of the new month. The day in which the new moon conjunction EVENT occurred was day one of the new month. David was absent from the feast, but Saul postponed criticism until the next such meal, one day later, WHICH WAS the SECOND DAY of the month per verse 27. It all fits like a glove.

However, IF the above interpretation is correct, it should match any precedent set forth in God's word. To see if it does, let's return to the first few verses of God's Word. He sets forth a precedent here. "And God said, Let there be light: and there was light. And God saw the light, that it was good: and God divided the light from the darkness. And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the FIRST DAY." - Genesis 1:3-5. This was the first step in God's creative process. In verse 3, He brought forth light. In verse 5, He made a statement that has been used throughout time by the Hebrew people to determine the ordering of the 24 hour period we call a "day". He said, and THE EVENING and THE MORNING were the first day. This means that the evening is the first part of the "day", and the morning ends the "day". When we first read these three verses, we tend to think that God brought forth the light, and then called the evening and morning that followed the first day. There is a problem with this though.

For in SIX days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it." - Exodus 20:11. It is clear here that the entire creation fell within a six day span. To say the evening and the morning which God called "the FIRST DAY" in verse 5 FOLLOWED the EVENT of bringing forth the light, would be to say that God created outside of (prior to the beginning of) the six days determined for creation. This cannot be! The evening and the morning which God called the FIRST day would have to be the time frame AROUND the EVENT of the creation of light. The evening PRIOR to the EVENT would have to have started the DAY OF the EVENT, which would be the FIRST DAY of creation.

Our God is a God of pattern! If these words (being the very first words of God to mankind), set forth His precedent of time, would it not carry through to the first day of the week, the first day of the month, and the first day of the year? Should the precedent be broken or remain consistent?

The conjunction of the moon is when the life of the previous moon ends (dies), and when the life of the next moon begins (is born). From the instant of conjunction until the next conjunction, the life progresses. The moon waxes (from birth at conjunction to the prime of its life at full moon), then it wanes (the aging process ebbing the light or life of the moon until it dies at the next conjunction). The new conjunction then restarts the cycle, bringing life again.

If the new month is determined by the giving of life to the new moon, is it right to say the new month does not begin for hours after the new life of the moon begins rather than the day that SURROUNDS AND INCLUDES the conjunction EVENT? Do you celebrate your birthday on the first COMPLETE day after you were born or the day that SURROUNDED AND INCLUDED the EVENT of your birth? Did God call the first day of his creation the first FULL day following the creation of light which started creation or the day that SURROUNDED and INCLUDED that EVENT? Should we not continue to follow the precedent He established in the first few lines of the Book He gave us?

I hope this may help to fill any gaps and complete the picture for the timing of the calendar.

Always seeking, and ever learning, Max

COME OUT OF HER MY PEOPLE

"And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her,
my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins,
and that ye receive not of her plagues."

What do we think that means? I know some who think this means that they need to pack their bags and leave the United States. I actually personally know people who believe that. Who is the 'her' of Revelation 18:4? Please notice that it is a female. It is not a nation; it is a church. The 'her' of Revelation 18:4 is the great, harlot church.

What does the harlot church teach? Among other things, she teaches the observance of the 'sacred' days of false gods and goddesses.

I make no bones about it; the origin of Easter is pagan. The very word 'Easter' is a simple transliteration of the goddess worshiped in ancient times as Ishtar. She is still worshiped today?

No? Ya vol!

We already know all about Easter, so why another post?

Because Christians don't realize what they are doing when they dye some hard-boiled eggs. We don't seem to be getting the point of what's wrong with that activity. We seem to have forgotten Yeshua's mandate to separate ourselves from all the trappings of the worship of false gods.

That is what the dying of eggs is. It is something that the pagans did as part of the worship of Molech. They dipped boiled eggs in the blood of the infants they were offering to Molech. It is still practiced, albeit in a modified form, by the Eastern Orthodox Church. They dye their boiled eggs red (not in blood these days). They don't even remember why they do it. Go online. See for yourself.

Now why would people who know that the dying of boiled eggs was part of a pagan ceremony honoring a false god, dye eggs at the same time of year that the pagans did?

"And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her,
my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins,
and that ye receive not of her plagues."

And in all things that I have said unto you be circumspect:
and make no mention of the name of other gods,
neither let it be heard out of thy mouth." (Exodus 23:13)

Many people say the word 'Easter' without knowing that to do so is an offense to God. Having said that, I'm sure readers will respond in the common way; "Ah, come on. How can it be that saying 'Easter' offends God."

Quite frankly, I don't know. I'm just reading Exodus 23:13 same as you. I just know that I don't want to offend him, and this one seems pretty easy to NOT do.

Do I really believe that saying 'Easter' offends God? Yeah; I do. Praise God for his grace and repent. That's his admonition to us.